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  • Which is the final court of appeal in the State of Idaho?
  • What impact has the utilization of Section 1983 had on jails, prisons, law enforcement, and correction agencies?
  • Winning is about _______ and _______.
  • When writing a use-of-force report it is good to include:
  • In tort law, which description best captures proximate cause?
  • Law Enforcement Officers have been entrusted by their communities to do all of the following, EXCEPT:
  • Which distance zone is classified as Social in the given model?
  • Which of the following is NOT part of the federal court system?
  • A bench warrant can be issued only after a judge directs the clerk to issue the warrant. Which statement best reflects this process?
  • If a debrief does not occur with the hostages after the incident is over, what could be a result?
  • What is the next step after the warrant, probable cause, or grand jury stage in a criminal case?
  • Ethics in law enforcement refers to which of the following?
  • What does PCN stand for in fingerprint processing?
  • Which case law is associated with the Fleeing Felon doctrine?
  • Which statement is a myth about misconduct and contact between staff and inmates?
  • Routine male pat searches of female inmates violates which amendment:
  • Pretrial detainees are entitled to what kind of conditions under the 14th Amendment?
  • What is the largest street gang in the State of Idaho?
  • According to the Idaho Tort Claims Act a government entity is required, in almost all instances, to provide a defense to its employee against any claims brought against the employee.
  • When describing property, it is best to include:
  • Which degree of burn develops painful red skin with blisters?
  • Officers should only be concerned with laws and politics, not their personal moral actions.
  • Observing in communication means noticing appearance, behavior, and environment.
  • Probable cause is defined by:
  • When filling out a Criminal Fingerprint Card you should enter the disposition prior to submitting the card.
  • The U.S. Court of Appeals is broken up into 13 Circuits. Which Circuit does Idaho fall under?
  • Which practice is correct regarding avoiding jargon in reporting?
  • Which of the following is NOT a right granted to inmates by the First Amendment?
  • Which of the following is NOT part of the federal court system's primary levels?
  • Butane hash oil is created by the process of pushing liquid butane through a tube packed with marijuana.
  • A deputy being overly friendly and familiar with inmates when they are new will help prevent falling for an inmate con game.
  • Which state is associated with the information about gang enforcement?
  • In general, the statute of limitations for misdemeanor and felony crimes are:
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the general gang categories?
  • Which statement best describes chronic stress?
  • The material states that corruption can occur without warning signs.
  • Which acronym is listed as an indicator that you are hearing what someone is saying?
  • The stages of hostage reactions include ______, delusions of a reprieve, busy work, and beginning taking stock in life.
  • Idaho Code ______ states the fingerprint requirement for criminal history records.
  • Is it important to come to work well rested and physically fit in order to survive a long career as a detention deputy?
  • Friction ridges are located on what areas of the body?
  • In crisis situations, empathetic understanding includes which action?
  • The 14th Amendment provides protection against unequal treatment on the basis of race, sex, or religion.
  • Marijuana is an example of which schedule of drug?
  • Observing in effective communication refers to the ability to notice and understand an individual's appearance, behavior, and environment.
  • Which of the following can be a side effect of sleep deprivation?
  • There are several consequences of breaching the public's trust by an officer. Which of the following is NOT necessarily considered one of the consequences?
  • If accused of excessive force, you could be civilly and criminally liable.
  • Retainable offenses, as referenced in Idaho law, require agencies to obtain and file fingerprints on certain individuals.
  • The Sixth Amendment right to counsel protects a pretrial detainee's right to see their attorney while incarcerated.
  • An officer that follows 'Clearly Established' Federal Law does not have Absolute Immunity and can be sued for their acts or omissions in that specific case.
  • State laws cannot provide less protection of constitutional rights than federal law.
  • Regarding pat-down searches, no individualized suspicion is required if:
  • What is the correct order of the ABCs in primary assessment?
  • Consent decrees are court-approved agreements to improve correctional facility conditions.
  • Which Idaho court has jurisdiction over felony criminal cases and civil disputes above $10,000?
  • An officer does not need to establish probable cause in order to make an arrest as long as he or she has confirmed the identity of a subject, and that said identification matches a valid existing arrest warrant.
  • Idaho's highest court, the final court of appeal, is the Idaho Supreme Court.
  • Future stress is the 'flight-or-fight' response that your body triggers in times of duress but is meant to be temporary.
  • The use of police jargon and legalese is encouraged.
  • Being able to identify content when communicating allows you to
  • Hudson v. McMillan is associated with which concept in evaluating use of force?
  • Which wound type is described as full skin surface removal and may involve heavy bleeding?
  • After PCN assignment, what must occur before updating criminal history records?
  • Which of the following is NOT a Graham v. Connor factor?
  • On an Arrest Warrant, bail may be fixed but is not required.
  • Fingerprint records may be maintained in which formats according to Idaho code?
  • The Idaho Criminal Gang Enforcement Act mandates extended sentences for gang members, and establishes definitions for both criminal gangs, and criminal gang members.
  • Under Idaho Code 18-112A, the maximum fine for a felony is:
  • An officer's field notes are subject to discovery under Idaho Criminal Rule 16.
  • The 14th Amendment includes the right to due process.
  • Idaho Code 67-3004 requires agencies to obtain and file fingerprints, physical descriptions and other available identifying data on persons who have been arrested for retainable offenses.
  • Which signs indicate illness may factor into behavior?
  • Article 1, Section 17 of the Idaho Constitution provides the same protections as the 4th amendment to the U.S. Constitutions. (T/F)
  • Legal mail can also be referred to as privileged mail.
  • What are the four causes of ethical violations within Law Enforcement?
  • Which U.S. Supreme Court case requires the prosecution team to disclose, to the defendant, all evidence that is material to guilt or punishment?
  • During a hostage incident, which perimeter approach is appropriate for officers?
  • Which amendment is commonly associated with the protection of due process for individuals at risk of state action?
  • Which amendment is primarily associated with protecting the right to a speedy trial?
  • Beginning to believe in the cause of the hostage takers is typically referred to as:
  • Which statement about the Idaho Court of Appeals is correct?
  • The facts in a trial are determined by the ___________ and the ___________ determines what law applies during a trial.
  • Generally, when an individual is avoiding eye contact they are typically indicating which behavior
  • Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a heart attack?
  • Which of the following is a possible goal for taking a hostage?
  • When clearing a foreign body airway obstruction in an obese or pregnant person, where should hand placement be before performing thrusts?
  • Which statement is true about the Idaho District Court?
  • Which factor is NOT a Turner test factor?
  • Short term effects of stress can include absenteeism, excessive aggressiveness, and alcoholism.
  • Keeping the distance of 24 to 48 inches would fall into which zone?
  • ______ stress is stress that is suffered for a prolonged period of time in which an individual perceives they have little or no control.
  • Factors regarding reasonable suspicion to conduct a strip search include:
  • Which of the following case laws refers to the Reasonable Officer Doctrine?
  • Fill in the blank: Turner v Safley 482 U.S. 78 (1987) states: 'When a prison regulation impinges on inmates constitutional rights, the regulation is valid if it is related to a legitimate _______________ interest'
  • Which of the following is NOT a typical physical effect of heroin use?
  • The best way to prevent an inmate from pushing your limits and boundaries is:
  • The five basic elements of a crime include name/identity, date, location, act/omission, and intent.
  • Which of the following list the four elements of a tort claim?
  • The most dangerous time as a hostage is:
  • The general punishment for misdemeanor offenses includes:
  • Which organization can decertify a peace officer?
  • An inmate who is upset at the result of his last court date adds negative pressure that could affect a deputy's survival. This statement is true or false?
  • Acceptance and Self-Awareness are the first two steps to cultural competence.
  • Which case established the rule that deadly force may not be used against a fleeing suspect unless there is probable cause of imminent threat?
  • Ten-print cards consist of
  • If conducting a pat-down search on a Transgender individual, what would be the best practice before the search is started?
  • Which statute defines criminal gangs and criminal gang members in Idaho?
  • Which list contains ALL the essential elements of a report?
  • Which statement best describes why inmates participate in con games?
  • Which set correctly lists the three Graham v. Connor factors used in evaluating government interest in use‑of‑force cases?
  • All of the following are pre-assault indicators EXCEPT:
  • Qualified immunity is the type of immunity a peace officer is entitled to if he/she acts in accordance with clearly established law.
  • There are four levels of discriminate listening. Which refers to evaluating the information received?
  • Which of the following is NOT a minutia type used in fingerprint comparison?
  • Which of the following are long-term effects of stress in law enforcement?
  • Under Idaho Code 18-4011, when is homicide by an officer justifiable?
  • The best way to protect yourself from inmate Con Games?
  • Which statement about sleep deprivation is incorrect?
  • Clonazepam is classified as which drug schedule in the material?
  • After hostages are released, what action is recommended?
  • Which statement about bail on arrest warrants is true?
  • What right does the 6th Amendment provide?
  • Which of the following are factors examined by the Turner test?
  • Which act requires inmates to exhaust administrative or state law remedies before filing a section 1983 lawsuit?
  • To prevent escalating a situation, a deputy should:
  • Reasonable Suspicion includes:
  • Friction ridges are defined as:
  • In evaluating jail use of force, which factor is not a consideration?
  • According to the CDC, which of the following is the best means for preventing contamination?
  • A Bench Warrant is:
  • Which of the following is NOT an indicator of cocaine use?
  • A purpose of zero-tolerance policies is to deter staff from having sexual relations with inmates.
  • Factors for whether a search is 'unreasonable' in a correctional/detention setting are?
  • ________is a steroid hormone that is produced by the adrenal glands in the body. It increases the metabolism of glucose and regulates the blood pressure.
  • Which of the following is a characteristic of a misdemeanor in this context?
  • Which fact is true about the Idaho Criminal Gang Enforcement Act?
  • Maintaining a healthy lifestyle has a positive effect on job performance, health, and quality of life.
  • Which set shows historical gender core values for men?
  • Consequences for sexual relations with inmates include:
  • Which phrase is included in the five steps of Cultural Competence?
  • What must a plaintiff prove in order to prevail in a Section 1983 lawsuit?
  • Which of the following is a recommended boundary in dealing with inmate con games?
  • Which statement best describes the required state action in a Section 1983 claim?
  • Which organization processes print cards and assigns PCN?
  • In the F.A.S.T. stroke assessment, what does the 'A' stand for?
  • In the life of a criminal case flow, what is the next step after bail is set?
  • In tort claims, which statement best describes 'duty'?
  • Which Supreme Court case under the Eighth Amendment requires correctional facilities to provide medical care to inmates?
  • Graham v. Connor established which standard for evaluating the use of force by law enforcement?
  • Second-degree burns are typically characterized by.
  • In the event of an emergency childbirth, what is the first thing you should do?
  • Granting a "One Time" favor is not an example of an inmate Con Game.
  • Which Idaho Code states 'the defendant must not be subjected to any more restraint than is necessary for his arrest and detention'?
  • Which right protects the right against unreasonable searches and seizures?
  • In what instance would a governmental entity be allowed to refuse a defense, or pay a judgment against an employee?
  • Which amendment is associated with due process protections for individuals mentioned in the material?
  • Due process rights at the state level are ensured by which amendment?
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the Six Pillars of Character?
  • Applicant Fingerprint Cards require the reason for being fingerprinted.
  • Which statement best describes the relationship between acceptance and self-awareness in cultural competence?
  • Which type of thrust is recommended for a choking victim who is obese or pregnant?
  • Which statement about the Idaho Court of Appeals is correct?
  • Estell v. Gamble addresses which constitutional protection for prisoners?
  • Which amendment addresses due process rights at the state level?
  • In official reporting, the term 'narcotic' is interchangeable with 'drug' and may be used without caution.
  • When speaking with someone in crisis, which two aspects of communication are most important?
  • Under the Civil Rights Act Title 42 USC 1983, what is the statute of limitations for filing a claim?
  • The material suggests that being overly friendly with inmates when they are new is a reliable way to avoid inmate con games.
  • The 14th Amendment provides reasonable conditions of confinement for pretrial detainees.
  • Which statement best reflects the Fourth Amendment standard for use of force?
  • In the life of a criminal case what is the next step after Arraignment?
  • A sucking chest wound on the left side requires which of the following dressings?
  • Which amendment protects individuals from unlawful searches and seizures?
  • EMS should be activated if a seizure lasts longer than how many minutes?
  • Fill in the blanks: "Stress can be defined as a state of _______ or emotional strain, or _______ resulting from adverse or very demanding circumstance."
  • Diazepam, Anabolic Steroids, and Clonazepam are examples of which drug schedule?
  • What is the statute of limitations to file a claim under the Civil Rights Act Title 42 USC 1983?
  • In infection control, which practice is considered most effective in preventing contamination when hands are visibly dirty?
  • Head injury indicators include which of the following?
  • Sureno gangs display the number _______ and wear the color _______.
  • Which concept describes ensuring force is proportional to the threat?
  • Inmates participate in Con Games to do which of the following?
  • Graham v. Connor established which standard for evaluating excessive force claims?
  • Narcotic is a term that has the same meaning as the term 'drug', and we do not need to worry about how we use it in reports or court.
  • Which substance would present symptoms such as anxiety, dilated pupils, dry mouth, teeth grinding and increased heart rate?
  • The right to due process is protected under which amendment?
  • When attempting to control bleeding, you should apply pressure to the primary artery below the wound. True or false?
  • Which outcome is not expected under zero-tolerance policy?
  • In Idaho, the statute of limitations for murder is:
  • Fingerprints are used to identify individuals because prints are:
  • If Miranda rights are administered, questions asked must relate to what?
  • Which case is commonly associated with balancing inmate rights against correctional interests using a multi-factor test?
  • Which statement best describes the Good Samaritan Act's protection?
  • What right does the 14th amendment of the U.S. Constitution provide?
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the four goals of communication?
  • Which statement accurately reflects the use-of-force standard discussed?
  • The three main governing factors of gang ideology are respect, retaliation, and representation.
  • Which statement describes Stockholm Syndrome?
  • The right to a speedy trial is protected under which amendment?
  • If taken hostage, you should NOT allow your hostage taker to talk.
  • Corruption in law enforcement occurs quickly without warning signs.
  • Which of the following statements about bench warrants is accurate?
  • According to Idaho Code 19-610, how much force may an officer use?
  • The Reasonable Officer Doctrine relates to evaluating use-of-force with which constitutional standard?
  • What is the set up stage of a Con Game?
  • After being released as a hostage, or being rescued, you can expect:
  • Which elements contribute to reasonable suspicion for a strip search?
  • Which of the following is considered a security error that could endanger a Detention Deputy?
  • The ACT Model focuses solely on holding others accountable.
  • True or False: A tourniquet should be tight enough to decrease bright red bleeding and left on the victim until a medical expert can remove it.
  • This foundation must be built on which of the following: Values, High morals, Principles, All of the above
  • According to I.C. 19-5101(d), a County Detention Officer is responsible for:
  • Detention Deputies may be liable if they fail to protect inmates from which groups?
  • Ten-print cards include rolled fingerprints and simultaneous impressions.
  • Which action is NOT a proper communication tactic when de-escalating tensions with an inmate?
  • Which factor is NOT typically considered an element of a crime?
  • Which of the following is one of the two most likely times an inmate may decide to take a hostage?
  • Which amendment protects the right to counsel for detainees?
  • Which of the following is not a red flag that could lead an agency to have concerns with an officer?
  • Personal Time with a deputy is sometimes the goal of a high level inmate Con Game.
  • A stigma is defined as:
  • An increase in requests to move units, more fights, inmates hoarding supplies, and changes in inmate communication are signs of what?
  • Deadly force is considered seizure by which amendment?
  • AFIS and Livescan quality statement: They require good quality prints and cannot clear up poor quality.
  • What step generally occurs after an arrest in the criminal process described?
  • When documenting a use of force, it is important to utilize the objectively reasonable standard, and articulate the facts of the incident.
  • If Miranda rights are given then questions asked will be related to a criminal investigation. Which of the following is correct?
  • The development of psychotropic medication in the 1970s made treatment of severe and persistent mental illness in the community possible. (T/F)
  • During a primary victim assessment the acronym ABC should be used. What does ABC stand for?
  • Which case established the standard that prison regulations, including mail policies, must be reasonably related to legitimate penological interests?
  • In an unconscious victim, the tongue is the most common airway obstruction. How should this be cleared?
  • Physical effects of heroin use include all of the following, EXCEPT:
  • Which option is an acceptable method for reporting corruption?
  • A Felony is:
  • Current stress is defined as:
  • In the stroke assessment, what does the 'A' component indicate?
  • Which step comes second in the 4-Step Tactical Negotiation Plan?
  • When writing reports, police cannot make assumptions.
  • Section 1983 actions enable monetary damages for violations of constitutional rights by individuals acting under state authority.
  • An inmate with significant mental health history is brought back into custody. This inmate expresses that he is feeling nauseated, very dizzy and is having suicidal thoughts. The inmate's symptoms are likely caused by:
  • When writing reports, you should be:
  • Under Section 1983, liability can be established when the defendant's actions were performed under color of state law.
  • Which factor is most directly related to the proportionality of force?
  • Effective communication skills will enable you to respond _________ instead of _________.
  • Mental confusion, dizziness, headache, weakness and/or paralysis on one side of the body and/or face are signs that someone may be experiencing, what?
  • Hudson v. McMillan established the concept of the 'good faith' when evaluating a use of force. (T/F)
  • When conducting a strip search on a Transgender inmate it does not matter what gender you are or what gender the inmate identifies with?
  • During a hostage situation, which duty is included for assisting officers?
  • What are the five steps of Cultural Competence?
  • Five key behaviors to indicate to others you are hearing what they are saying to you:
  • Which of the following is NOT a Minutia that examiners use to compare prints?
  • EMS activation is recommended if a seizure lasts five minutes or longer.
  • The clock on a criminal statute of limitations stops running when the defendant is out of state.
  • Under Idaho's Good Samaritan Act (Idaho Code 5-330), first aid rendered in good faith protects all persons from civil damages.
  • Under Idaho Code 18-6110, sexual relations with an inmate are classified as a felony.
  • Which option correctly identifies a security risk in a detention setting?
  • Zero tolerance policy means you can expect all of the following EXCEPT:
  • In evaluating whether a prison regulation burdens a constitutional right, the Turner test requires a rational connection to a legitimate government interest.
  • _______ speed up the central nervous system, and causes anxiety, paranoia, increased heart rate and reduces appetite.
  • Detention Officers act as Peace Officers under Idaho Code 20-603 in which scenarios?
  • The statement 'The 14th Amendment protects equal protection under the law' is:
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic elements of a crime?
  • Deliberate indifference is:
  • Which statement about AFIS and Livescan is correct?
  • There are three main pattern groups for fingerprints. Which is NOT one?
  • Idaho Code 5-330 is associated with which act?
  • Which statement about the Six Pillars of Character is accurate?
  • Which statement about debriefing after an incident is true?
  • ACT stands for:
  • Which amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures?
  • The Federal District Court for the District of Idaho hears which types of cases?
  • Which statement best captures proper report writing practice?
  • A Tort claim is an action against an individual or entity for committing a civil wrong, resulting in a claimant suffer in loss or harm.
  • Of the four stages exhibited by the hostage taker during the crisis, which is depicted by: stuttering or yelling loudly, using threatening profanity, trying to push your 'buttons', clenched fists, and profuse sweating.
  • Drug is defined as:
  • Under the Fourth Amendment, correctional officials must give an announcement or warning prior to searching an inmate's living quarters.
  • What emotional response might hostages exhibit after release or rescue?
  • The right to medical care for inmates is associated with which amendment?
  • What is the correct order for the 4-Step Tactical Negotiation Plan?
  • Which type of stress is defined as residual stress that you cannot let go of such as PTSD?
  • Which statement accurately captures the general definition of a drug as used in the material?
  • Which amendment extends due process protections to individuals at the state level?
  • Mistakes made in and during an investigation need to be:
  • Butane hash oil is created by the process of pushing liquid butane through a tube packed with marijuana.
  • In a traumatic amputation, how should the severed body part be preserved?
  • To prevent escalating a situation, a deputy should not:
  • Who was the first person to study the persistence/permanence of friction ridge skin?
  • Which of the following best describes the approach to handling sexual misconduct with inmates according to zero-tolerance policy?
  • Consent decrees are agreements, approved by courts, to make certain improvements in the conditions of correctional facilities.
  • Which of the following statements accurately reflects the scheduling of Diazepam, Anabolic Steroids, and Clonazepam according to the material?
  • The standard of proof in criminal cases is:
  • Which item is NOT typically included in a use-of-force report?
  • You could be personally liable for civil damages if you have sexual contact with an inmate.
  • Which of the following is a sign of impending trouble with inmates?
  • The ACT Model focuses solely on holding others accountable.
  • Under certain circumstances, Detention Deputies can be held liable for failing to protect inmates from assaults from other officers.
  • Which statement about fingerprint pattern groups is accurate?
  • The statement 'Failure to keep your word is not a problem for a Detention Deputy since inmates likely do this on the outside all of the time' is true or false?
  • If taken hostage, you should NOT expect the hostage taker to demonstrate his power through a show of violence.
  • Someone may have a head injury if they display which of the following symptoms?
  • What is the primary reason for thoroughly documenting mistakes made during an investigation?
  • Which of the following is a method used by drug abusers to obtain prescription drugs?
  • Which amendment protects against self-incrimination?
  • Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a heart attack?
  • When communicating with people there are names used to describe spatial differences. Which of the following is not one of the distances discussed?
  • Which symptom is most likely to indicate a stroke?
  • Your use of force is justified based on which of the following factors?
  • To manage behavior effectively, a deputy should leave an inmate without choices.
  • During an inmate emergency, which practice best enhances deputy safety?
  • The statement that future stress triggers a flight-or-fight response intended to be temporary is:
  • POST can decertify you without the approval of your agency.
  • An inmate upset about the result of court proceedings adds negative pressure that could affect deputy survival. Is this statement true?
  • Which case established the objective reasonableness standard for evaluating police use of force?
  • Which combination of reporting channels is explicitly described as acceptable for reporting corruption?
  • Is the statement 'A sucking chest wound left untreated will only lead to excessive blood loss' true or false?
  • The Law Enforcement Code of Ethics is standards or rules of conduct by which Law Enforcement Officers Live.
  • Training in acute stress and traumatic reactions is important for which groups?
  • A report should be written when you are involved in an incident that affects life, liberty, or property.
  • The availability of psychotropic medication in the 1970s affected community treatment by:
  • Idaho Code 18-6110 states it is a Misdemeanor if caught having sexual relations with an inmate. True/False?
  • Which statement best describes an infraction?
  • Which amendment protects inmates from cruel or unusual punishment?
  • When addressing an inmate's individual rule violation, which approach is most appropriate?
  • It is a violation of an inmate's 8th amendment right to deny them contact visits.
  • There are no time restrictions for the execution of felony warrants.
  • Which statement best describes documenting actions and observations?
  • Which of the following is NOT part of the ten requirements of proper report writing?
  • Which option correctly lists the five steps of Cultural Competence?
  • When a person's ability to cope has been overwhelmed after something happening to them, they are:
  • Legal mail may only be opened and inspected for contraband
  • What are valid reasons for officers to write formal reports?
  • Garrity can be used when:
  • The 14th Amendment provides the right to due process at the state level. (T/F)
  • The best course of action when dealing with someone with a mental illness is to agree with their reality so they do not become upset. (T/F)
  • Which is an employment consequence if you have sexual contact with an inmate?
  • Which of the following is NOT listed as a potential side effect of sleep deprivation?
  • An infraction is NOT punishable by imprisonment.
  • When dealing with an inmate in crisis, empathetic understanding suggests you:
  • Turner v. Safley is associated with guidelines for prison policies regulating inmate correspondence. What is the standard used to assess such policies?
  • There are five basic skills for sizing up a situation. Which of the following is not one of the basic skills?
  • Which rights are provided by the 14th Amendment according to the material?
  • Prison gangs are not very organized and tend to not have formal "chains of command".
  • Which statement best describes proper communication tactics a deputy can use to lower the threat from an inmate?
  • What is the maximum imprisonment for misdemeanor offenses in county jail?
  • Which of the following is NOT a type of inmate likely to create a hostage situation?
  • Mental Illness is defined as
  • A Schedule I drug has a high potential for abuse, has no currently accepted medical use in the U.S., and has a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision.
  • Prior to conducting a pat-down on a transgender inmate, what is recommended?
  • Which statement accurately describes the essential elements of a report?
  • Of the following list, all are negative attributes of law enforcement with one exception. Which is the exception?
  • The 14th Amendment provides which of the following rights: Protection against unequal treatment on the basis of race, sex, or religion; Reasonable conditions of confinement for pretrial detainees; The right to due process; All of the above.
  • First aid for a gunshot or stabbing wound includes which of the following?
  • A wound described as full skin surface removed or torn, which may involve heavy bleeding, is called what?
  • Brady v. Maryland also brought about the term 'Brady-Dead,' which means if you are found to be untruthful you are no longer credible and your career will end.
  • There are five basic skills for sizing up a situation.
  • Having a plan of action, keeping uninvolved inmates away from the area of an emergency, and always keeping inmates under observation are ways to:
  • When do friction ridges begin to develop?
  • In tort law, which element links the defendant's conduct to the plaintiff's injury in a legal sense?
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